Hello Richard

Quote Originally Posted by Richard Amiel McGough View Post
That's not true. The most famous occurrence had no "constraint" and was understood by the Jews as being a declaration by Christ that he is God who declared his name is "I AM" to Moses (that's why they picked up stones to kill him):

NKJ John 8:58 Jesus said to them, "Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM."

This is an accurate word for word translation. Nothing follows the EGO EIMI (I AM) at the end of the sentence.
I am not going to get into an argument with you about this. Those same words are most often translated "I am he". It is unfortunate the translators did not put the "he" in this verse for consistency. Why the inconsistency? Translators not sure? Therefore, translators are possibly showing some bias.

Quote Originally Posted by Richard Amiel McGough View Post
As an aside, this I found this verse very convincing demonstration of the Divinity of Christ when I was a Christian because it is confirmed by the Isaiah Bible Correlation. The Book of John is often thought of as the "I AM" Gospel because of the seven I AM statements made by Jesus. It's the 43rd book and so corresponds to Isaiah 43 which has the highest frequency of I AM statements from God. The distribution of I AMs in the NT correspond to the distribution in the NT portion of Isaiah. Here's the distribution, which I discuss in this article:
Look at all the "I am" in Isaiah 45 and to see how emphatic God is about being singular; "I am the LORD, and there is none else". Four times God says that of himself in that chapter. Another three times in chapter 44 God says; "none beside me". In those two chapter you have for divine completion God saying that he is ONE and there is none else besides him.

All the best