Good morning Eliyahu, .
Originally Posted by eliyahu
I think there has been a slight misunderstanding. I was not talking about the Jews who have retained knowledge of their Jewishness. They have indeed managed to remain genuine "Jews" to a large degree, and the Aaronic gene helps prove that. But I was talking about the northern ten tribes of Israel that were scattered and who lost thier tribal identities. They simply do not exist any more becuase once they lost their identities they could not help but interbreed with Gentiles, and once the interbreeding begins, it very very very quickly dilutes the bloodline until there is no genetic identity left.
As for the few groups scattered here and there that claim identity as one of the tribes. I agree that they could be decendants, but I deny that they have retained their tribal identities or genetic purity. Simply answer one question and you will see that this is the only logical solution. What percentage of your physcial ancestory must be of Israel for you to be considered "of Israel?" Given the nature of population dynamics, nearly evey person on the planet can trace their lineage back to one of the ten tribes! They are like a drop of ink that dispersed into an ocean of Gentiles and is now very uniformally distributed.
That passage can not be properly understood unless it is read in context. And what does the context say? It says that God is talking about Israel under the NEW COVENANT! Here it is:
Originally Posted by eliyahu
Jeremiah 31:31-36 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: [Fulfilled in the New Covenant Christian Church created by God from the first century Remnant of Israel] 32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: 33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel [The New Covenant that defines the Christian Church was made with the Remnant of Israel.]; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. [This prophecy was FULFILLED in the Christian Church, see 2 Cor 3:3, 6:16] 34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. [This was fulfilled in the GOSPEL OF CHRIST.] 35 Thus saith the LORD, which giveth the sun for a light by day, and the ordinances of the moon and of the stars for a light by night, which divideth the sea when the waves thereof roar; The LORD of hosts is his name: 36 If those ordinances depart from before me, saith the LORD, then the seed of Israel [This defines the Christian Church, as it is written in Galatians 3:29: ye are Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.] also shall cease from being a nation before me for ever. Remember that Christ denounced some of the literal seed of Abarham as sons of the devil! And John the Baptist said it was pointless for Jews to appeal to their natural heritage because God could raise up sons to Abraham from the stones on the ground. The Bible is perfectly clear on this point. In the prophecy of Jeremiah, the "seed of Israel" speaks specifically of the true Israel that God would eternally save in Christ through the Gospel. The context proves this with total certianty, and this understanding is confirmed by Christ Himself, by John the Baptist, and by the Apostle Paul. It is the biblical teaching. I see no ambiguity in it at all, and I see no support for the idea that Jeremiah was speaking about carnal Israel. Do you? Can you support your interpretation that Jeremiah was talking about the unbelieving Israel as opposed to the believing remnant? I say "as opposed to" because we KNOW that the believing remnant of first century Israel all entered into the New Covenant and so became Christians. Why should we think that Jeremiah was ignoring the true Israel of God who believed Him and was instead prophesying about the unbelievers that God said He would cut off from His New Covenant people?That idea seems to be upside-down and backwards. It makes no sense at all to think God was focusing on unbelieving carnal Israel in the very prophecy that defined the everlasting New Covenant Israel that had received everlasting salvation in the Jewish Messiah.