I agree in the same sense as there is a "distinction" between Spanish and French, but that means nothing in terms of the Gospel.
Here I vigorously disagree. The Jews do not "have" [present tense] a "covenant of circumcision" with God. The "testator" (Christ) DIED and that fulfilled the Old Covenant and brought in the New. This is why God destroyed the Temple and the Levitical priesthood. Indeed, the author of Hebrews predicted the soon destruction of the entire Old Covenant system when he said it "decayeth and waxeth old" and was "ready to vanish away." That prophecy was fulfilled in 70 AD.
Think about it. Do you really believe that God would honor the Old Covenant with a bunch of people that rejected the death of His Son?
Yes, we are "Jew" or "Gentile" in the ethnic sense of who our parents were. But we are not "Jew" or "Gentile" in the Biblical sense of having different relationship to God. So from a Biblical point of view, I see no distinction between Jew or Gentile. I don't see how such labels denote anything but a fleshly heritage.
What purpose? Did not the Old Covanant ended with the death of Christ?
I still don't know what the difference is other than mere facts concerning heritage. You said that the Jew who comes to Christ is just another Christian, so what it the point of focussing on the Chinese, Spanish, French, Jewish, or Arminian? I don't get it. But I certainly am glad to try to work it out with you!
Richard
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