And the Two shall become One

[Rose]

I think your understanding of Two shall become One is faulty. Please tell me what you understand by Two becomes One. Ask yourself how can Two persons become One? How is that Two becomes One related to leaving his father and mother and cleave to a woman and about creating male and female?

For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh.

I believe it is talking about Marriage and Family. Two becomes One is Man + Woman = 2 i.e. Marriage, Man + Woman (2; coitus) = Child (1) i.e. Family, therefore 2 becomes 1 is (50%Man gene and 50%Woman gene (2) = 100%Child gene = FAMILY (1).

Therefore, this passage is about Marriage and forming a Family regardless of whether is it through Monogamous or Polygamous relationship.

Look at the passage again and it mention the creation of male and female (children of both sexes) and leaving the parents (i.e. parenthood) is analogous to leaving the parents and becoming parents of their own children through procreation..

And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh.

This is my literal interpretation of the above passage in red:
And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female (for procreation), And said, For this cause (the cause of procreating) shall a man leave father and mother (i.e. leaving them to form the parents of his own family), and shall cleave (i.e. coitus) to his wife (i.e. through Marriage ): and they twain shall be one flesh (i.e. one Family)? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh (i.e. one Family).

Jesus also said about singlehood when asked that it is better not to marry i.e. being "eunuch" and His answer is that IF this person can take the sexual urges and loneliness that accompanies singlehood then let it be regardless of what is the cause or purpose of the singlehood.

If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.


May God Bless the Family

I'm sorry Cheow I really don't think Jesus was speaking of men and women procreating, but that was a good try. If you recall Jesus was directly referencing Gen.2:24, after woman had been taken out of man's flesh making them of one flesh, there was no eluding to having children, in fact in the whole time Adam and Eve are in the Garden there is no mention of being fruitful and multiplying. It wasn't until Adam and Eve were kicked out of the Garden that they had their first children.

Also, according to Jesus multiple wives was NOT okay, otherwise he would not have said if a man marries another woman he is committing adultery, because even though he divorces his wife they are still one flesh, thus having more than one wife (or husband) is committing adultery - directly contradicting what God allowed and gave laws for in the Old Testament.

Another relevant point that directly opposes the idea you introduced is the teaching of Jesus on eunuchs...he said the best way was to become eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven - meaning to become one with the kingdom of heaven - which has nothing to do with procreating.

All the best,
Rose

[Rose]

Matt.19:3-12 The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

A careful reading of the above discourse by Jesus on the unity of marriage will disclose a theme that is not only out of character with Jewish thought in the Old Testament, but also contrary to the actions of the God inspired patriarchs. Starting with Abraham who took Hagar as his second wife it becomes a common occurrence throughout the Old Testament for men to have multiple wives, which is totally at odds with the idea of becoming one flesh, as presented in Genesis and reiterated by Jesus. Also the phrase “the twain shall become one” only occurs once in the entire Old Testament. Polygamy is never frowned upon by the biblegod, but rather encouraged as in the case of Jacob with his four wives from whom the twelve tribes of Israel were born…conflicting greatly with the idea of one man, one woman, equals one flesh. Anyone who is familiar with Scripture knows the account of Yahweh giving the wives of King Saul to David (2Sam.12:7-11) and then giving those same wives of David to his son Absalom to rape as punishment for David’s sins (2Sam.16:21-22), clearly showing Yahweh had no problem with multiple wives, adultery, or rape.

Another out of character theme touched upon by Jesus is the answer given to the query of the disciples “If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry” to which Jesus responded “He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.” Implying that the best way for man is to be a eunuch for the kingdom of heaven, which again is contrary to the proclamation in Genesis 1 “Be fruitful and multiply”. Nowhere throughout the Old Testament is celibacy encouraged, even the priests were expected to marry, albeit within their own tribe. So, where did this idea of celibacy, and monogamy which was also promoted by Paul, enter into the biblical picture?

This passage in Matthew also conflates the idea of God creating male and female (chapter 1) with the reason that a man leaves his father and mother is to cleave to his wife (chapter 2). First off, the idea of God creating male and female in his image comes from Genesis 1:27 and says nothing of man and woman being joined together as one flesh in marriage which doesn’t occur until Genesis 2:24. Why Jesus conflated the two concepts and spoke of them as being one idea when it directly conflicts with the explicit biblical approval of polygamy I don’t know. Obviously it was news to the Pharisees who queried Jesus on the matter.

Another matter that comes to mind is that of divorce, in the same passage Jesus says that Moses allowed divorce because of the hardness of mans heart. The reality of the matter is that in Deuteronomy it says that God gave Moses all the laws including the one on divorce, so it wasn’t Moses who allowed divorce it was God who gave Moses that law. If that is the case then the claim by Jesus which says not one jot or tittle shall be changed from the law is also false, because Jesus changed the law on divorce from that of being acceptable to that of causing one to commit adultery. Did the biblegod whom Jesus claimed was his father, change his mind from that of permitting and encouraging multiple wives and divorce, to forbidding it lest you be called an adulterer? Just another point in my long list of reasons that show why the god of the bible cannot be who he is claimed to be.


Rose

I would like to add a few more points to my opening post concerning the allowing of multiple wives by Yahweh which in in direct opposition to what Jesus is teaching on adultery. First off in Genesis 4, Adam's great grand son Lamech took two wives seemingly with God's approval, because even though Gen.2:24 says that Adam and Eve shall be one flesh, multiple wives is never forbidden anywhere in the Old Testament.

Gen. 4:19 And Lamech took unto him two wives: the name of the one was Adah, and the name of the other Zillah.

All through the Old Testament we see cases of multiple wives with NO hint of a disapproving god. What we DO SEE is Yahweh accommodating men with laws to dispose of their wives through divorce, or regulations on how to treat their multiple wives.

Exo.21:10-11 If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.

Deut. 21:15 If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have born him children, both the beloved and the hated; and if the firstborn son be hers that was hated:

Deut.24:1-3 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;

Also there is the case of God giving Saul's wives to David, and then as punishment to David took those same wives and gave them to Absalom to rape in the sight of all Israel!

2Sam.12:7-11 And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul; And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things. Wherefore hast thou despised the commandment of the LORD, to do evil in his sight? thou hast killed Uriah the Hittite with the sword, and hast taken his wife to be thy wife, and hast slain him with the sword of the children of Ammon. Now therefore the sword shall never depart from thine house; because thou hast despised me, and hast taken the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be thy wife. Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of thine own house, and I will take thy wives before thine eyes, and give them unto thy neighbour, and he shall lie with thy wives in the sight of this sun.

Not only does God actively participate in the giving of multiple wives to David, which according to Jesus would be considered adultery, but God explicitly takes the wives of David and gives them to Absalom to rape!

How can this egregious contradiction of what Jesus is teaching, and violation of moral law be justified?

Rose