
Originally Posted by
David M
Hello Richard
I had not intended to get into discussion as my post was intended for Rick, though not having stated that explicitily, I know my comments are open to challenge by anyone. I shall just add a word in response to some things you say, though I hope and expect these matters to be dealt with in other threads
Hi David,
I've been knocked out with a rhinovirus for the last few days so I haven't been able to respond.

Originally Posted by
David M
The Creation that takes place on the earth begins in verse three with the creation of light and the forming of day and night.
Verses 1 and 2 as you say took place before the first day of creation on the earth. There is nothing to argue with verse 1 and nothing to suggest that God had not also made other stars and planets (in the beginning). Who really knows whether the figure of 9 billion years is correct? It could be a lot more or a lot less, it is man's best guestimate.
Verse 2 merely describes the condition of the earth as it was before God created the conditions to sustain life, and then God creates life.
In verse 16, The text does say that God made the Sun and Moon. We could consider the possibility that the sun and moon were already created and that God made them appear in the sky on the fourth day. Also consider the phrase "he made the stars also". Note; I have shown words in italics the same as my Bible shows them. This means these words are not in the original text, and have been inserted by the translators. If you take out the italic words, the sense of the verse is that the stars (as the moon does) rules the night. This makes sense as we can only see the stars at night; we do not see stars until the sun has set.
If the creation "that takes place on the earth begins in verse three" then why does verse one speak of God creating the heavens and the earth?
I agree that there is some uncertainty as to the age of the universe, but we know that the age derived from the Bible is totally wrong by thousands of orders of magnitude.
There is no way to fix the Biblical account of Creation without utterly abandoning any kind of "literal interpretation."
Modern science has revealed that the Bible is not a reliable source of knowledge concerning the physical universe. There is nothing in the book that would suggest it was inspired by a God who actually created the universe. On the contrary, the story of creation in Genesis 1 is set in the context of the primitive mythological cosmology of the Ancient Near East. If this is denied, then the Bible is shown to be useless as a guide, because rather than getting our knowledge from the Bible, we are trying to conform the Bible to our knowledge.

Originally Posted by
David M
It would be good. I have asked you elsewhere to tell me what prophecies you see as fulfilled. AD70 appears to be a fulfillment of a prophecy you agree with, but I need you to confirm which prophecies you agree with.
I don't know of any other prophecies that have been fulfilled. The prophecy of Psalm 22 is more like a typological fulfillment that could be known only "after the fact." It wasn't like a prophecy which actually predicted anything. The same goes for most other prophecies ... except the ones that obviously failed, like the prophecy against Babylon being suddenly destroyed.

Originally Posted by
David M
Ezekial 11:17 Therefore say, Thus saith the Lord GOD; I will even gather you from the people, and assemble you out of the countries where ye have been scattered, and I will give you the land of Israel. After the Babylonian exile, from which the Israelites returned they have not returned from all the countries into which God scattered them. This is not to say, every Jew will return. We have seen the establishment of Israel in 1948 after the Jews returned from many countries. Not every prophecy concluded in AD70.
As you note, the prophecy was not predicting the return of every individual. So why do you think it was not fulfilled? And if it wasn't fulfilled, why would you think it will be fulfilled in the future?
And more to the point - the context proves it was fulfilled in the first century:
Ezekiel 11:17 Therefore say, Thus saith the Lord GOD; I will even gather you from the people, and assemble you out of the countries where ye have been scattered, and I will give you the land of Israel. 18 And they shall come thither, and they shall take away all the detestable things thereof and all the abominations thereof from thence. 19 And I will give them one heart, and I will put a new spirit within you; and I will take the stony heart out of their flesh, and will give them an heart of flesh: 20 That they may walk in my statutes, and keep mine ordinances, and do them: and they shall be my people, and I will be their God.
Paul said this prophecy (and/or others that are nearly identical) were fulfilled in the church:2 Corinthians 6:14 Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness? 15 And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel? 16 And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. 17 Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you, 18 And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty.
Your futurist eschatology shreds Scripture and ignores all the PROOF TEXTS used by Paul to show that the Church was the fulfillment of those prophecies.
All the best,
Richard
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