
Originally Posted by
RAM
Your comment hits the heart of the matter. You said:
"God is not biased, God inspired men to write His word, therefore the authors were not biased because they simply wrote what they were inspired to write."
Excellent. This is the basis of my syllogism:
Minor Premise: God is not biased.
Major Premise: God inspired the Bible.
Conclusion: The Bible is not biased.
Now we can look at reality, and behold! The Bible is biased.
Therefore, one of the premises is false. Either God is biased, or God did not inspire the Bible.
Your solution, of course, is to deny that the Bible is biased. But I don't see how that is possible, since the Bible is plainly biased in many ways against women in favor of men.
So this is the one and only point we need to discuss. IS THE BIBLE BIASED AGAINST WOMEN IN FAVOR OF MEN?
Please don't confuse the issue with biases in the Bible that were not established by God. The only question is whether the Bible teaches a bias against women.
Here are the obvious points:
1) Woman is blamed for the fall (in both the Old and New Testaments).
2) Women must be subject to men. (Man is the head of the woman.)
3) Women must not teach.
4) Women must be silent in church.
5) Women are "saved" through childbirth.
6) The period of uncleanness for a female child is twice that of a male child.
7) Women were owned by men (the penalty for rape depended on her marital status. The father of a virgin was PAID MONEY whereas the rapist was killed if he raped a married woman (owned by a man).
8) Women can't divorce men, but men can divorce women.
9) etc.
Using your logic that the Bible is biased against women, I would like to suggest using a different logic f which there are 4 possibilities i.e. 1. if the Bible is biased against women 2. if the Bible is biased against men and 3. if the Bible is biased against men and women and 4. if the Bible is not biased against men and women.
Let's itemized your logic as A, the rest B, C, D accordingly:
A: Using your logic if the Bible is biased against women:
1) Woman is blamed for the fall (in both the Old and New Testaments). Absurd
2) Women must be subject to men. (Man is the head of the woman.)Absurd
3) Women must not teach. Absurd
4) Women must be silent in church. Absurd
5) Women are "saved" through childbirth. Absurd
6) The period of uncleanness for a female child is twice that of a male child.Absurd
7) Women were owned by men (the penalty for rape depended on her marital status. The father of a virgin was PAID MONEY whereas the rapist was killed if he raped a married woman (owned by a man). Absurd
8) Women can't divorce men, but men can divorce women. Absurd
9) etc
B: Using your logic in which the Bible is biased against men:
1) Man is blamed for the fall (in both the Old and New Testaments). Absurd
2) Man must be subject to women. (Woman is the head of the man.) Absurd
3) Men must not teach. Absurd
4) Men must be silent in church. Absurd
5) Men are "saved" through childbirth. Absurd
6) The period of uncleanness for a male child is twice that of a female child.Absurd
7) Men were owned by women (the penalty for rape depended on his marital status. The mother of a virgin man was PAID MONEY whereas the female rapist was killed if she raped a married man (owned by a woman). Absurd
8) Men can't divorce women, but women can divorce men.Absurd
9) etc.
C. Based on your logic that the Bible is biased against men or women, it will read:
1) Both Man and Woman is blamed for the fall (in both the Old and New Testaments). Sounds OK.
2) Both Men and Women must be subject to men i.e other people of both sexes. (Man is the head of the woman and woman is also the head of man.) Absurd
3) Both Men and Women must not teach. Absurd
4) Both Men and Women must be silent in church. Absurd
5) Both Men and Women are "saved" through childbirth.Sounds OK.
6) The period of uncleanness for a female child is twice that of a male child, same with the male child. Absurd
7) Both men and Women were owned by other people (the penalty for rape depended on marital status. The father or mother of a virgin man or woman was PAID MONEY whereas the rapist was killed if he or she raped a married man or woman (owned by a man or a woman). Absurd
8) Women can't divorce men, neither can men divorce women. Sounds OK unless infidelity.
9) etc.
D. Now based on your logic, if the Bible is not biased against men and women, it will read:
1) Man and Woman is not blamed for the fall (in both the Old and New Testaments). Absurd
2) Women must not be subject to men and neither Men subject to women. (Neither Man is the head of the woman or the woman head of man.)Sounds OK.
3) Both Men and Women must teach. Sounds OK.
4) Both Men and Women must not be silent in church. Sounds OK.
5) Both Men and Women are not "saved" through childbirth. Sounds OK.
6) The period of uncleanness for a female child is not twice that of a male child neither is the male uncleanliness twice of women Sounds OK.
7) Women were not owned by men or men owned by women (No penalty for rape is depended on the marital status. The father or mother of a virgin was not PAID MONEY whereas the rapist was not killed if he/she raped a married woman or woman ( not owned by a man or woman). Absurd
8) Women can divorce men and men can divorce women.Sounds OK (if based on infidelity).
9) etc.
I know you will call these absurd but what I am trying to see is which of all these make the most sense if we look in other directions. Now which do you think make better sense? Sounds more like item D is the best in which the Bible is not biased against men or women. This tends to show that your logic of the Bible biased against women (Item A) is false, item B in which the Bible is biased against men is also false, Item C in which the Bible is biased against men and women seems largely false and Item D in which the Bible is not biased against men or women seems largely correct.
God Blessed us all.
Ask and You shall receive,
Seek and You shall find,
Knock and the door will be open unto You.
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