
Originally Posted by
duxrow
My error -- jumping to conclusions, thinking of the OTHER.. Scuse, plz. That WAS a horrific account and one I'm not wanting to justify in any way. But about the Seed of Gal 3, and the notoriety you speak of, it's the first I've heard of it. My view of the seed is that it was passed down from father-to-son all the way from Adam to Noah to David to Zorobabel -- but never to Jesus, because the seed from God was what impregnated Mary. *If I'm not on the wrong page again - ha*

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No worries bro! We all make mistakes. I'm glad you don't want to try to justify the unjustifiable. But it does evoke the question about why the Bible so strongly emphasizes that Lot was "righteous" -
2 Peter 2:7 and delivered righteous Lot, who was oppressed by the filthy conduct of the wicked 8 (for that righteous man, dwelling among them, tormented his righteous soul from day to day by seeing and hearing their lawless deeds) -- 9 then the Lord knows how to deliver the godly out of temptations and to reserve the unjust under punishment for the day of judgment,
What kind of "righteous" man would offer his two daughters to be raped by a mob? Something just ain't right here ...
As for Galatians 3:16 ~ that verse bugged me from the first time I read it because I knew it was bad logic. And as it turns out, it's bugged pretty much everyone who has ever read it, and it's extra weird because Paul himself frequently used the word "seed" in the singular to refer to all believers and not just Christ himself so he seemed to contradict himself on top of making a bad argument! Now it looks like a train wreck.
As for the "seed of David" - if the "seed" was passed down father to son, then the chain was broken at Mary and so how could Christ be called the "seed of David?" She was "David's see" but Christ was not. I don't know how folks solve this problem.
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