Did Jesus fulfill the law when he died on the cross? If your answer is "no," then tell me what Paul meant when he said in Col. 2:14, "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross." Here's exactly what Jesus was saying in Matthew 5:17-18: The death of Jesus on the cross fulfilled the requirements of the Old Testament Law. And...that's exactly what Paul is emphasizing in Col. 2:14.
The NT speaks of the 'coming' (their timeframe, first century) marriage. At the time of the writings of all of the NT books the Covenant People were still under the Law of Moses, the law of death.
Les, Jewish marriage customs show us that it involved the establishing of a marriage covenant, which came to its fullness at Pentecost, not in 70 A.D. Christ's death at the Cross, the price the Bridegroom (Christ) paid to purchase his Bride, which was part of the Jewish marriage customs. From that moment on the Bride was married and 'set apart' exclusively for her Bridegroom. After the marriage covenant had been established the groom would return to his Father's house (Christ's ascension) to prepare a place (wedding chamber) for his bride. The consummation of the marriage (Rev. 19:7) and the marriage supper (Rev. 19:9) could not come until he returned for his Bride; and this has yet to occur. This can be seen in the parable of Mt. 22 that Gilgal posted.
Even though the Betrothal to 'the People' was given at Pentecost, the rolling away of the reproach of Egypt/Babylon/Jerusalem/Mosaic Temple Cultus 'law' did not happen until 70AD and it was at that time that the NC Marriage accured. That is what I mean about the Pentecost/Promise Land Crossing.
"And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away" (Rev. 21:4).