
Originally Posted by
EndtimesDeut32/70AD
The plural is employed until vs 27 where the one week [the 70th] is mentioned. Thus the plural seems similar to our putting an 's' on the end of a word. 70 week(s); 7 week(s) 62 week(s) 1 week(no s)
I would propose that the issue is not whether the words are employed as either plural or singular, but whether the text is either the concise Feminine or the inconcise Masculine.
Collin Sandler
"The word used for "weeks" is actually TWO words in the original text: shibah and shabuwa."
In his book "Daniel, Key to Prophetic Revelation," John Walvoord cites Edward Young's "The Prophecy Of Daniel", which noted that Daniel used: "the masculine plural instead of the usual feminine plural. No clear explanation is given except that Young feels 'it was for the deliberate purpose of calling attention to the fact that the word sevens is employed in an unusual sense.'" This word is found only FIVE times in the O.T., all in the 9th chapter of Daniel, twice in verse 24, twice in verse 25, and once in verse 26. Interestingly, Daniel's verse 27 uses "shabuwa" (Strong's 7620)."
However, if you examine a J.P. Green interlinear, you should find FIVE instances of the Hebrew word "shibiym" ("Strong's" 7657), and TWO instance of "shabuwa". According to "Strong's", "shibiym" is described as a "multiple [plurl] of 7651", which is the word "sheba" in feminine gender and "shibah" in masculine gender. "
If I understand the contexts correctly, it appears that the first sixty-nine "shibah" are one chronology, and the seventieth "shabuwa" is a different chronology. It seems fairly obvious that the seventieth "shabuwa" is a seven-year period, and that the sixty-nine "shibah" are NOT. Nearly all commentators interpret all seventy periods of time as "shabuwa", which totals to 490 years. Literal scripture does NOT support that interpretation."
This individuals chronology is correct, but not for the reason cited. As provided previously the distinction between shibiym and shabuwa is not durations, but whether plural or not plural.So all we know is that the text is NOT the concise Feminine, but the inconcise Masculine. As such the Feminine = 490, but the Masculine ≠ 490. (Please note that your cited source has acknowledged his mis-statement.) But certainly Young, Keil, & Kliefoth readily acknowledge the "unusual" use of the Masculine text:
'...as Young points out, the word ‘sevens’ is in the masculine plural instead of the usual feminine plural. No clear explanation is given except that Young feels ‘it was for the deliberate purpose of calling attention to the fact that the word 'sevens' is employed in an unusual sense.’'
'...Young finally concludes after some discussion that Keil and Kliefoth are correct when they hold that the word ‘sevens’ does not necessarily mean year-weeks, but an intentionally indefinite designation of a period of time measured by the number seven, which chronological duration must be determined on other grounds.'
John Walvoord, Daniel, The Key to Prophetic Revelation, Moody Press, Chicago, 1971, p. 217
Furthermore Young proceeded to observe that this Masculine text is only found in the 9th Chapter of Daniel, and the Feminine is used in the 10th Chapter and all other citations in Scripture.
However, none of your responses refute the Masculine text as cited by Young, Keil, & Kliefoth (as documented per Walvoord), and your "1,000s" are conspicuously absent. So for now all I can suggest is that the experts are unable to unravel the mystery of this Chapter. Does this suggest there is no answer? God forbid. There IS an answer, and both Scripture and history confirm the true fulfillment.
With Best Regards,
BibleScribe
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