The Gospel Preached To ALL the World before the End!

[CWH]

See my response in red:

I understand why futurism wishes to argue against its fulfillment in the first century so that Christ's coming could not have been fulfilled because the Gospel being preached everywhere had not been fulfilled.
I can also understand why preterists must insist that the gospels have been preached to all the world so as to fit their AD 70 concept and that Christ second coming ocurred in AD 70.


Why do you insist upon making the "world" and "earth" refer to the planet? You do realize that our present planet was not named Earth until quite some time after, right? It doesn't matter when Earth was named, it is obvious that the gospels have not been preached to Americas, Australia, much of Asia and Africa in the 1st century. So if it have not been preached to all these areas. how can the end comes? It would be unfair to those who haven't heard the gospels. Tell me, did Christ died for the sin of known biblical world only or did He died for the sin of the whole Earth.

Isaiah 30:26 - Moreover the light of the moon shall be as the light of the sun, and the light of the sun shall be sevenfold, as the light of seven days, in the day that the LORD bindeth up the breach of his people, and healeth the stroke of their wound.
Compare this verse to the fourth bowl in Revelation 16:

8The fourth angel poured out his bowl on the sun, and the sun was given power to scorch people with fire. 9They were seared by the intense heat and they cursed the name of God, who had control over these plagues, but they refused to repent and glorify him.

Many Blessings.

[Richard Amiel McGough]

TruthSeaker black
Cheow red
Richard black bold


I understand why futurism wishes to argue against its fulfillment in the first century so that Christ's coming could not have been fulfilled because the Gospel being preached everywhere had not been fulfilled.
I can also understand why preterists must insist that the gospels have been preached to all the world so as to fit their AD 70 concept and that Christ second coming ocurred in AD 70.
That's not the reason. The reason is because the Bible declares that the Gospel had been preached in the all the world in the first century, and Preterists like to "fit" their ideas to what the Bible actually states.

Why do you insist upon making the " world" and "earth" refer to the planet? You do realize that our present planet was not named Earth until quite some time after, right? It doesn't matter when Earth was named, it is obvious that the gospels have not been preached to Americas, Australia, much of Asia and Africa in the 1st century. So if it have not been preached to all these areas. how can the end comes? It would be unfair to those who haven't heard the gospels. Tell me, did Christ died for the sin of known biblical world only or did He died for the sin of the whole Earth.
If it is unfair to those who have not heard yet, then it is equally unfair to those who died in places before the Gospel reached them! And besides, we all know with absolute certainty that the Bible was not talking about America and Australia in those passages.

The Bible declares that the Gospel was preached in all the world in the first century. Why don't you simply accept what the Bible teaches?

[CWH]

TruthSeaker black
Cheow red
Richard black bold


I understand why futurism wishes to argue against its fulfillment in the first century so that Christ's coming could not have been fulfilled because the Gospel being preached everywhere had not been fulfilled.
I can also understand why preterists must insist that the gospels have been preached to all the world so as to fit their AD 70 concept and that Christ second coming ocurred in AD 70.
That's not the reason. The reason is because the Bible declares that the Gospel had been preached in the all the world in the first century, and Preterists like to "fit" their ideas to what the Bible actually states.

Why do you insist upon making the " world" and "earth" refer to the planet? You do realize that our present planet was not named Earth until quite some time after, right? It doesn't matter when Earth was named, it is obvious that the gospels have not been preached to Americas, Australia, much of Asia and Africa in the 1st century. So if it have not been preached to all these areas. how can the end comes? It would be unfair to those who haven't heard the gospels. Tell me, did Christ died for the sin of known biblical world only or did He died for the sin of the whole Earth.
If it is unfair to those who have not heard yet, then it is equally unfair to those who died in places before the Gospel reached them! And besides, we all know with absolute certainty that the Bible was not talking about America and Australia in those passages.

The Bible declares that the Gospel was preached in all the world in the first century. Why don't you simply accept what the Bible teaches? I do believe that the gospel was preached to the known world as known by the apostles but yet not everybody in those world that were preached have received the good news. Obviously, it did not spread to the Americas, Australia, much of Asia and Africa. It only spread to these areas through the centuries up till now and still spreading.

You did ask a very good question which I would like to know your response, "If it is unfair to those who have not heard yet, then it is equally unfair to those who died in places before the Gospel reached them". In other words, for those who have never heard of the gospel at all, do they go to heaven? Will God gave them a second chance?...or is ignorance is no excuse?

Many Blessings.

[Edward Goodie]

You did ask a very good question which I would like to know your response, "If it is unfair to those who have not heard yet, then it is equally unfair to those who died in places before the Gospel reached them". In other words, for those who have never heard of the gospel at all, do they go to heaven? Will God gave them a second chance?...or is ignorance is no excuse?

Many Blessings.

Cheow, could we stick with the original post please? If you would like to start a specific thread regarding your question that would be great. It is best to keep the posts on topic...especially for future reference.

Blessings!

[Richard Amiel McGough]

You did ask a very good question which I would like to know your response, "If it is unfair to those who have not heard yet, then it is equally unfair to those who died in places before the Gospel reached them". In other words, for those who have never heard of the gospel at all, do they go to heaven? Will God gave them a second chance?...or is ignorance is no excuse?

Many Blessings.

That would be a big conversation! If you want to pursue it, you should start a new thread so we don't throw this thread off topic.

[EndtimesDeut32/70AD]

EndTimes;

"Achri".....seems in this context to be a term of duration.....until the times......."times" is seasons, or periods of time.....again it seems to be referring to a duration.
These seasons which are attributable to the Gentiles (nations) are to be filled up.....as you would picture the filling of the bottom of an hour glass as the sand has emptied out of the top.
fulfilled in this verse is "pleroma"........the same word used in Romans 11:25 where Paul reveals as mystery concerning the duration of the blindness which has covered the eyes of a part of Israel. This blindness will last "until" (achri) the fullness (pleroma) of the Gentiles (nations) come in.

Joel

Hi Joel,
I'm wonding if you had a chance to review my response to this comment.

http://www.biblewheel.com/forum/show...3&postcount=27

And then I'm wondering if you found the comment understandable.

Was I able to get across the belief that Rom 11 is not referring to a "full number" of Gentiles, nor a full time of Gentiles trodding Jerusalem under foot to accomplish the desolation, but was referring to a Spiritual filling of individuals in the Nations that had already been coming in from @35-60 AD?

Was I able to establish the connection from verse 25 in chapter 11, to the previous verses in 11:11-14 where the jealousy and hope of emulation is mentioned.

Was I able to establish that Paul had previously mentioned this 'jealousy factor' in chapter 10 vs 19 where he talks of only the remnant of Israel being saved and also apostate Israel being made Jealous by those who are not a people/and a foolish nation?

Was I able to establish that Paul, in Romans 10:19, quotes from Deut 32:21 which is the chapter of the end generation of national Israel of the mosaic covenant and thus this primary fulfillment was between 40 and 70 AD.

Thus again, Romans 11:25 is confirmed to not be talking of a 'full number' of gentiles or a fullness of the time of their trodding Jerusalem under foot but of fullness of the individual Gentiles in their Spirit which was prophesied (in Love)to make some of remaining unbelieving Israelites Jealous all the way back in Deut 32. Paul's hope that the yet elect part of the yet unbelieving Israelites in 60-70 AD (and beyond) would be made jealous of this fullness within the Gentiles unto emulation and salvation.

The summary verses of 11:28-32 confirm this.

Can you interact with this or challenge it?

[EndtimesDeut32/70AD]

Bump..others free to comment.

Hi Joel,
I'm wonding if you had a chance to review my response to this comment.

http://www.biblewheel.com/forum/show...3&postcount=27

And then I'm wondering if you found the comment understandable.

Was I able to get across the belief that Rom 11 is not referring to a "full number" of Gentiles, nor a full time of Gentiles trodding Jerusalem under foot to accomplish the desolation, but was referring to a Spiritual filling of individuals in the Nations that had already been coming in from @35-60 AD?

Was I able to establish the connection from verse 25 in chapter 11, to the previous verses in 11:11-14 where the jealousy and hope of emulation is mentioned.

Was I able to establish that Paul had previously mentioned this 'jealousy factor' in chapter 10 vs 19 where he talks of only the remnant of Israel being saved and also apostate Israel being made Jealous by those who are not a people/and a foolish nation?

Was I able to establish that Paul quotes from Deut 32:21 which is the chapter of the end generation of national Israel of the mosaic covenant and thus this primary fulfillment was between 40 and 70 AD.

Thus again, Romans 11:25 is confirmed to not be talking of a 'full number' of gentiles or a fullness of the time of their trodding Jerusalem under foot but of fullness of the individual Gentiles in their Spirit which was prophesied (in Love)to make some of remaining unbelieving Israelites Jealous all the way back in Deut 32. Paul's hope that the yet elect part of the yet unbelieving Israelites in 60-70 AD (and beyond) was purposely hardened to be made jealous of this fullness by faith within the Gentiles unto emulation and salvation.

The summary verses of 11:28-32 confirm this.

Can you interact with this or challenge it?